NSE6_EDR_AD-7.0 Lernhilfe & NSE6_EDR_AD-7.0 Zertifikatsfragen

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NSE6_EDR_AD-7.0 Zertifikatsfragen - NSE6_EDR_AD-7.0 Fragenkatalog

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Fortinet NSE 6 - FortiEDR 7.0 Administrator NSE6_EDR_AD-7.0 Prüfungsfragen mit Lösungen (Q24-Q29):

24. Frage
Within the FortiEDR architecture, which component needs JumpBox capabilities to enable authenticated and controlled communication with FortiAnalyzer? (Choose one answer)

Antwort: A

Begründung:
The correct answer is A. Core.
For FortiAnalyzer / FortiAnalyzer Cloud integration, the FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that one prerequisite is "A Jumpbox with connectivity to FortiAnalyzer." The same section says to refer to Setting up the FortiEDR Core for details about installing a FortiEDR Core and configuring it as a Jumpbox. In the connector configuration, the guide also states that the Jumpbox field is used to select the FortiEDR Jumpbox that will communicate with FortiAnalyzer or FortiAnalyzer Cloud.
So, the FortiEDR component associated with JumpBox capability is the Core. The Central Manager must have connectivity to Fortinet Cloud Services, but it is not the component configured as the JumpBox. The Aggregator handles registration, configuration, and monitoring between Collectors/Cores and Central Manager, and the Reputation Server is unrelated to FortiAnalyzer JumpBox communication in this context.
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25. Frage
Refer to the Exhibit:

A FortiEDR analyst is prioritizing response efforts. One application has a vulnerability score of Critical but an Unknown ACI rating, while another has a Medium vulnerability score with active ACI evidence of adversary targeting. Which application must be addressed first? (Choose one answer)

Antwort: B

Begründung:
The correct answer is D .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that FortiEDR displays two severity ratings for applications: NIST Severity and ACI Severity . NIST Severity is based on FortiEDR's vulnerability scoring system using the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. ACI Severity, however, is Adversary Centric Intelligence provided by FortiRecon and FortiGuard Threat Analysts, covering dark web, open-source, and technical threat intelligence, including threat actor insights . This helps administrators proactively assess risk, respond faster to incidents, understand attackers, and protect assets.
The guide also states that FortiEDR helps analysts prioritize alerts and incidents using risk factors such as severity of vulnerabilities , relevance of threat intelligence feeds , and severity of affected endpoints , so effort is focused on the most significant organizational risks.
Therefore, the application with Medium NIST severity but active ACI evidence of adversary targeting should be prioritized over an application with Critical NIST severity but Unknown ACI rating , because active adversary-centric intelligence indicates current attacker interest or exploitation relevance. In plain terms: a theoretical critical vulnerability matters, but an actively targeted vulnerability is the fire you put out first.
Option B is tempting but incomplete because it relies only on NIST/CVSS severity. FortiEDR's ACI rating exists specifically to add adversary context to prioritization. Option A is wrong because FortiEDR does not treat all vulnerable applications equally. Option C is wrong because asset criticality can matter, but the guide does not say prioritization depends only on asset criticality.
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26. Frage
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the event shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true? (Choose two answers)

Antwort: B,C

Begründung:
The correct answers are B and C .
The exhibit shows the event classification as Malicious . In FortiEDR, event classification can be performed by the Core and later updated by FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) . The guide states that the audit history shows the classification chronology and includes details when FCS reclassifies a security event after the Core' s initial classification. It also states that notifications can be based on either Core or FCS classification depending on whether FCS classification is received within the timeout period.
The exhibit also shows TestApplication.exe with Status: Running . That means the process was launched and is currently running on the endpoint. Therefore, C is correct.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit clearly shows Status: Unhandled , not Handled. The guide states that FortiEDR security events are initially marked as unread and unhandled, and users can later mark them handled through the incident handling workflow.
Option D is wrong because the exhibit shows rule indicators such as Invalid Checksum , Suspicious Packer
, and Writable Code , but it does not prove that TestApplication.exe is "sophisticated malware." FortiEDR classifies the event as malicious, but the guide's Malicious classification means the event is verified to have malicious capability, is intended to harm the infected device, and has no commercially viable use; the exhibit alone does not justify the stronger claim "sophisticated malware."
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27. Frage
You added three new applications to FortiEDR using only the Path attribute. What are two expected outcomes of this configuration? (Choose two answers)

Antwort: A,C

Begründung:
The correct answers are A and B .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that newly added applications are disabled by default , which means they are not blocked unless enabled. The guide further explains that the default state can be changed by enabling the Enable Default application state option in the Application Control Manager settings. Therefore, option A is correct.
Option B is also correct because Application Control allows an application to be defined by Hash or by any combination of File Name / Path / Signer . The guide says that the Path field specifies the path to the executable file of the application to be blocked. When using path-based matching, the enforcement is tied to the specified path criteria, not to every possible location of the same file.
Option C is wrong because the file name does not also need to match when only the Path attribute is used.
Option D is wrong because blocking all instances regardless of location applies when only the File Name field is used, not when the match is path-specific. The guide explicitly states that if only the File Name field is filled, the application is blocked no matter where the executable appears.


28. Frage
An employee leaves the company and no longer has access to the FortiEDR system. You must ensure GDPR compliance regarding the employee's personal data stored in FortiEDR. Which two data types must be removed to meet GDPR requirements? (Choose two answers)

Antwort: B,C

Begründung:
The correct answers are A. Device and user name and D. IP address and MAC address .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the GDPR feature is implemented in Administration > Settings > Personal Data Handling . It is used to remove relevant data for an employee or FortiEDR user who no longer has access to or uses the FortiEDR system. The guide explicitly identifies the personal data as device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name . It further states: "You must remove all device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name data from FortiEDR in order to fully comply with the GDPR standard." Therefore, installed applications and installed OS name are not the required GDPR personal data types in this FortiEDR procedure. The required removal is performed iteratively for the employee's/user's device name , IP address , MAC address , and user name . The guide also instructs administrators to continue removing the other required data: IP address, MAC address, and user name , and to delete any reports that may contain the user's data.


29. Frage
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